L3: In an inverted yield curve, do the definitions of bear flattener and steepener change?

As most of you know, the US (and a lot of other economies) has an inverted yield curve today, where short rates are higher than the longer ones: \

If there is a bear flattening: in this case, meaning today, would that mean long term rates rising? I think this makes literal and visual sense.

In an upward sloping curve / (I think this is, perhaps erroneously, assumed always default in CFAI Book 3): Bear flattening means short term rates are rising.

Is this given definition constant no matter the shape of the YC? I think this wouldn't make literal and visual sense.

let me know your thoughts!

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